Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 00:24
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Making a Diving Catch For Space - NASA Watch
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What the Texas food label law means for the rest of America - The Washington Post
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.